Posted by: thaishin | September 22, 2017

The filling of the Holy Spirit

Passages to be considered:

Romans 8

11 But if the Spirit of him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, he that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by his Spirit that dwelleth in you.  -kjv

Ephesians 5

18 And be not drunk with wine, wherein is excess; but be filled with the Spirit;  -kjv

Colossians 3

16 Let the word of Christ dwell in you richly in all wisdom; teaching and admonishing one another in psalms and hymns and spiritual songs, singing with grace in your hearts to the Lord.  -kjv

 

Question from moody radio listener on 9th September 2017:

Thank you for explaining to us that everyone who has Jesus as Lord and savior has the Holy Spirit dwelling within us. Same scripture goes on to say that the Holy Spirit could be in some, with some, overshadowing some, I wonder if there are any differences in all those phrases?

Dr Michael Rydelnik:

Overshadowing? Where does it say overshadowing?

Listener:

Mary … Is there a difference in varying degrees the filling of the Holy Spirit, the presence of the Holy Spirit and with those differences, the consequence in terms of the mentality, anointing, benefits and so on?

Dr Michael Rydelnik:

I will do my best on this one … ok? First of all, I will say that the overshadowing of the Holy Spirit upon the mother of our Messiah was unique, it’s not like everyone experiences that overshadowing, it was the way a miracle happened that she was able to have a baby. One of the things that is really repulsive is that some people make it almost seem like a sexual union between Holy Spirit and Mary. It was not and it was a miracle that the Holy Spirit overshadowed her and cause this child to be formed in her womb. It was not sexual, it was merely a miracle. And so, that’s what happened there and I don’t think it is common or normal or something that every believer experiences obviously.

Secondly, the filling of the Holy Spirit is a command. Too often, we think that filling of the Spirit like a cup, do we have quart of a cup, do we have a half cup? It’s not filling a cup, the way I would use it is a picture of a sponge, being filled and certainly a different kind of filling there. And so, you can’t have more Holy Spirit than I have. You know, we all have the Holy Spirit. Now  how much use do we want to make of that Holy Spirit? That’s a different story. There were people in Rome who were making the idea that they can have more Holy Spirit than others, when needed more Holy Spirit we need more Holy Spirit than these, Paul writes that Romans 8:11 that ” The spirit of Him who raised Jesus from the dead lives in you, then He who raised Messiah from the dead will also bring your mortal bodies to life through His spirit who lives in you.” So, the point there is, we don’t need to go looking for more Holy Spirit, we already have the power that raised Jesus from the dead indwelling us, we don’t need more of Him, He needs more of us. That, I think is the great difference and in Ephesians 5:18, where it says “Don’t be drunk with wine, but rather be filled with the Holy Spirit.” The word means control, that’s the idea. In the bible when it says be filled with joy means controlled by joy, filled with rage means controlled by rage, filled with the Holy Spirit, that means they are controlled by the Holy Spirit. How that happens is found in the parallel passage to Ephesians 5:18, it is found in Colossians 3. Gives a similar command, it’s a parallel passage, with the same consequences. So you read in Ephesians 5:18, if you are filled with the Spirit, you will worship, you will have healthy family relationships, all these kinds of consequences. In Colossians, it gives the command and has the same worship and healthy family relationships but the difference is in Ephesians 5:18, it says be filled with the Spirit, and in Colossians 3;16, I believe, it says let the word of the Messiah dwell in you richly and that means let  the word of God take forcible occupation of our lives, and the more we read, study, understand and obey God’s word, the more the word of God takes forcible occupation, that’s the parallel idea to letting the Spirit controls us. How does the Spirit controls us, the Spirit controls us as we allow the word of God to take forceful occupation of our lives and we obey it, that’s when we are transformed, that’s how He gets control of us.

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Question from the audience on open line progam on 9 September 2017?

How do we know that the books in the Protestant bible are the only books inspired by God?

Answer from Dr Michael Rydelnik?

Ah .. the question then would be about the books that we have in the bible versus the Catholic bible which has the Apocrypha as well. You know, the question of which books should be in the bible was not settled until the sixteenth century, kind of interesting. In a sense, it was settled right away. The books of the Hebrew bible were received and accepted and believed to be God’s word by Jewish leaders and not in the year ninetieth as some people say but almost immediately as they were received, they were recognized as scripture. And you can look at the literature that developed in between the close of the old testament and the beginning of the new, it’s called intertestamental literature, where Jewish people talk about wanting to have a prophet to rise again and give more scripture, but apparently prophecy had ceased and they didn’t  know but they anticipated this restoration and then we get the new testament and those books were received virtually immediately, not like certain movies and books like Da vinci code say that it was only in the fourth century that Constantin decided to include the New Testament books at the Council of Nicea. That is a completed fabrication and I always tell people, that’s fiction. The question of Canon didn’t even come up at the Council of Nicea but almost immediately, the books of the New Testament were recognized as scripture. And the apocrypha was not. When you come to the sixteenth century when you have the Protestant Reformation,  where we’re having the five hundred anniversary this year. In the Protestant Reformation, there was a movement to separate from certain traditions that have grown up in the Church. One of those would be Purgatory.  In 1546, the Catholic church held another council, the Council of Trent, and they wanted to counter information, they wanted an answer to the Reformation.  And the only place where they could find some of the doctrines taught in the church  was in the Apocrypha. Previous to this, the Apocrypha was thought of as good intertestamental religious literature but not of scripture. And so what happened was then they say, Ah, we’re going to call this a secondary level of scripture, a quasi-scripture, we’re going to include it in the bible and so the sixteenth century, they included it and it was sort of an after thought, not because it was ever accepted as scripture before that but just so they could defend some of the doctrine that were being taught. And so, most people except for this tradition, most Christians don’t accept the Apocrypha as scripture, just the Hebrew bible and the new testament as we have it.

 

Posted by: thaishin | September 8, 2017

Who or what are the host of heaven?

Question from moody radio listener on 2 September 2017:

We are looking at Isaiah 24: 21 : ” So it will happen in that day that the Lord will punish the host of heaven on high and the kings of the earth on earth. Who or what are the host of heaven?”

Passages to be considered:

Isaiah 24

21 And it shall come to pass in that day, that the Lord shall punish the host of the high ones that are on high, and the kings of the earth upon the earth.  -kjv

21 In that day the Lord will punish the powers in the heavens above and the kings on the earth below.  -niv

21 On that day the Lord will punish the host of heaven above and kings of the earth below.  -hcsb

 

Psalms 2

The kings of the earth set themselves, and the rulers take counsel together, against the Lord, and against his anointed, saying, Let us break their bands asunder, and cast away their cords from us.  -kjv

The kings of the earth rise up and the rulers band together against the Lord and against his anointed, saying, “Let us break their chains and throw off their shackles.”  -niv

The kings of the earth take their stand, and the rulers conspire together against the Lord and His Anointed One: “Let us tear off their chains and free ourselves from their restraints.” -hcsb

 

Answer from Dr Michael Rydelnik:

The simplest and clearest explanation is, ” The host of heaven refers to the armies of heaven, so we often think of that as angels.” It says the Lord will punish the host of heaven and this the moody bible commentary I am quoting now and exactly what I would have said if I did not have an mbc for me to look at, this is likely a reference to fallen angels or spiritual power that oppose God. So, the Lord will punish the host of heaven and the kings of the earth, referring to the political opposition to God in the last days, see psalm 2.

Mrs Eva Rydelnik:

The question isn’t to so much why and who are they but why will they be punished?

Answer from Dr Micheal Rydelnik:

Obviously, the ultimate revolt when you think about it. The first revolt were the spiritual beings that revolted with Satan against God and although they were cast out, they still face ultimate punishment, the lake of fire was the destiny of the devil and his angels and then the kings of the earth are going to be punished if you read psalm 2 because they shake their fist at God and they want to throw off His rule and do whatever they want instead of what He wants.

 

 

Posted by: thaishin | September 1, 2017

Why did God allow King David to have many wives?

Question from moody radio listener on Aug 26, 2017:

Why did God allow King David and others in the bible to have many wives?

 

Passages to be considered:

Genesis 2

24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.  -kjv

Deuteronomy 17

15 Thou shalt in any wise set him king over thee, whom the Lord thy God shall choose: one from among thy brethren shalt thou set king over thee: thou mayest not set a stranger over thee, which is not thy brother.

16 But he shall not multiply horses to himself, nor cause the people to return to Egypt, to the end that he should multiply horses: forasmuch as the Lord hath said unto you, Ye shall henceforth return no more that way.

17 Neither shall he multiply wives to himself, that his heart turn not away: neither shall he greatly multiply to himself silver and gold.  -kjv

 

Answer from Dr Michael Rydelnik:

I will say why does God allow people today to have affairs? Why does God allow people today to do things that are wrong? It seems to me that God does not impose judgment on us instantaneously when we disobey him and yet we might ask the very same question about things that go wrong today, even spiritual leaders do things that are wrong and it seems to me that when we look at David, it was clear that when God created marriage, he wrote that it was to be one man one woman for life, for this cause the man shall leave his father and mother and shall cleave to his wife, this is Genesis 2:24. Cleave means make permanent bond to his wife, not to his wives but to his wife. And the two shall become one flesh and then it says the man and the woman were naked and unashamed. That’s the creation of marriage. Right there. And it seems to me that God’s intention for marriage was always to be between one man and one woman for life. That being said, in Deuteronomy 17, when God tells Israel that they are going to have kings, and that a godly king would not multiply wives, I think it’s interesting that it said multiply wives or horses. In other words why those two things, well, one it might be a king’s prerogative to take as many wives as he wants, you know that’s what kings could do. And also, it’s the king’s desire to build up his military. And God says neither of those are what I want from a king because God’s intention for marriage for a king was to have one man, not to have multiple wives and certainly not to build up his army so that he can depend on his army, instead of depending on God. So, that’s Deuteronomy 17. So, all I can say is David was being disobedient, and God mercifully did not thrash him instantaneously when he multiplied wives.

Posted by: thaishin | August 25, 2017

About uncleanness in Levitucus 12 and 15

Question from moody radio listener on June 24, 2017:

I would like to hear your insights on Leviticus 12 through 15 where it talks about the cleansing of women and women’s customary impurity and after she bears a female child, her impurity is twice as long as a male and also in chapter 15, during the customary impurity, she’s unclean during the impurity and after seven days afterward, it seemed that she spends about half her life being impure.

Passages referred to in this question:

Leviticus 12

12 And the Lord spake unto Moses, saying,

Speak unto the children of Israel, saying, If a woman have conceived seed, and born a man child: then she shall be unclean seven days; according to the days of the separation for her infirmity shall she be unclean.

And in the eighth day the flesh of his foreskin shall be circumcised.

And she shall then continue in the blood of her purifying three and thirty days; she shall touch no hallowed thing, nor come into the sanctuary, until the days of her purifying be fulfilled.

But if she bear a maid child, then she shall be unclean two weeks, as in her separation: and she shall continue in the blood of her purifying threescore and six days.

And when the days of her purifying are fulfilled, for a son, or for a daughter, she shall bring a lamb of the first year for a burnt offering, and a young pigeon, or a turtledove, for a sin offering, unto the door of the tabernacle of the congregation, unto the priest:

Who shall offer it before the Lord, and make an atonement for her; and she shall be cleansed from the issue of her blood. This is the law for her that hath born a male or a female.

And if she be not able to bring a lamb, then she shall bring two turtles, or two young pigeons; the one for the burnt offering, and the other for a sin offering: and the priest shall make an atonement for her, and she shall be clean.  -kjv

Leviticus 15

18 The woman also with whom man shall lie with seed of copulation, they shall both bathe themselves in water, and be unclean until the even.

19 And if a woman have an issue, and her issue in her flesh be blood, she shall be put apart seven days: and whosoever toucheth her shall be unclean until the even.

20 And every thing that she lieth upon in her separation shall be unclean: every thing also that she sitteth upon shall be unclean.

21 And whosoever toucheth her bed shall wash his clothes, and bathe himself in water, and be unclean until the even.

22 And whosoever toucheth any thing that she sat upon shall wash his clothes, and bathe himself in water, and be unclean until the even.

23 And if it be on her bed, or on any thing whereon she sitteth, when he toucheth it, he shall be unclean until the even.

24 And if any man lie with her at all, and her flowers be upon him, he shall be unclean seven days; and all the bed whereon he lieth shall be unclean.

25 And if a woman have an issue of her blood many days out of the time of her separation, or if it run beyond the time of her separation; all the days of the issue of her uncleanness shall be as the days of her separation: she shall be unclean.

26 Every bed whereon she lieth all the days of her issue shall be unto her as the bed of her separation: and whatsoever she sitteth upon shall be unclean, as the uncleanness of her separation.

27 And whosoever toucheth those things shall be unclean, and shall wash his clothes, and bathe himself in water, and be unclean until the even.

28 But if she be cleansed of her issue, then she shall number to herself seven days, and after that she shall be clean.

29 And on the eighth day she shall take unto her two turtles, or two young pigeons, and bring them unto the priest, to the door of the tabernacle of the congregation.

30 And the priest shall offer the one for a sin offering, and the other for a burnt offering; and the priest shall make an atonement for her before the Lord for the issue of her uncleanness.

31 Thus shall ye separate the children of Israel from their uncleanness; that they die not in their uncleanness, when they defile my tabernacle that is among them.

32 This is the law of him that hath an issue, and of him whose seed goeth from him, and is defiled therewith;

33 And of her that is sick of her flowers, and of him that hath an issue, of the man, and of the woman, and of him that lieth with her that is unclean.  -kjv

Answer from Dr Michael Rydelnik:

As for the impurity, it seems to me through reading the torah, that it was considered bodily discharges were considered ritually impure. Now, I don’t know why that is, but bodily discharges like for example an open sore that has oozing coming out of it would make someone ritually impure. So, obviously, the menstrual cycle was something that would make women ritually impure, doesn’t mean immoral or like there was something sinful but just something that would be considered an impurity.

Now as to why for women who give birth to a female child is considered impure for twice as long as when she gives birth to a male child, I am going to give you the answer as it is found in the moody bible commentary. This is from commentary on Leviticus, written by one of our favorite professors here at moody bible institute. Here’s what he writes, ” The birth of a female child double the period of impurity for the mother. No explanation for this is given” Don’t we hate that? “Though some speculate that the female child would some day be subject to ceremonial uncleanness through menstruation and child birth.” Because a female would one day menstruate, because a female would one day give birth, that makes her have, some people speculate because of that future, she causes double impurity and therefore, it’s like that. So, I don’t think it says in anyway that the female is inferior, it’s just dealing with the impurity aspects of it and I appreciate that John in his commentary that he states he don’t know but this is the speculated reason. That’s the speculation that most Old Testament interpreters hold to.  Then he says:” Whatever the case, the Lord uses His sovereign right to mark the distinction between the sexes, even from birth.” And I think he’s right, this is all the Lord’s sovereign decision and that’s how it is.

Question:

” So then how does the women get along with half her life being unclean?”

Answer:

Well, not half her life but for the time that she is menstruating. She starts menstruating when she’s at puberty and usually it’s in mid-life that menstruating stops.

Question:

And it still seemed a whole bunch of time to me

Answer:

I understand. What can I say? Some people have say, as a result, it’s more likely, obviously sexual relation is prohibited during this time of ritual impurity. Then, when a married couple would have sexual relations, when it was permitted, it was more likely a woman will get pregnant because the week after menstruation, she likely would not. So, maybe that was the design to encourage child bearing? I don’t know.

I do think that it’s interesting that a lot of times, people call menstruation a curse. That’s not the curse. The curse is pain in child birth. That’s really hard and I am amazed at the great strength of women, that they endure the awful pain during childbirth and that’s part of the curse.

 

Posted by: thaishin | August 12, 2017

Is the Anti-Christ a homosexual?

Daniel 11

37 Neither shall he regard the God of his fathers, nor the desire of women, nor regard any god: for he shall magnify himself above all.  -kjv

37 He will show no regard for the gods of his ancestors or for the one desired by women, nor will he regard any god, but will exalt himself above them all.  -niv

37 He will not show regard for the gods of his fathers, the god longed for by women, or for any other god, because he will magnify himself above all.  -hcsb

Haggai 2

And I will shake all nations, and the desire of all nations shall come: and I will fill this house with glory, saith the Lord of hosts.  -kjv

I will shake all nations, and what is desired by all nations will come, and I will fill this house with glory,’ says the Lord Almighty.  -niv

I will shake all the nations so that the treasures of all the nations will come, and I will fill this house with glory,” says the Lord of Hosts.  -hcsb

Question from moody radio listener:

I read Daniel 11:37, talking about the Anti-Christ, “He will show no regard for the gods of his fathers or for the desire of women, could we take it that in today’s context, with the worldwide rise of homosexuality, that Daniel may have give us a glimpse. Is the anti-Christ a homosexual? Moody commentary gave an interpretation, but I wonder if current events would give an additional theory?

Answer from Dr Michael Rydelnik:

The commentary says that these are the characteristics he will have: he will be temporary successful, he will prosper till the indignation’s finished, he will be irreligious, he will show no regard for the gods of his fathers, he will be opposed to Christ, he will show no regard of the desire of women, a reference to the longing of the Jewish women to give birth to the Messiah, the desire of whom He is the one, a sort of a nominal way of saying that who is the one desired of women, the Lord Jesus the Messiah, that every Jewish women wanted to give birth to the Messiah, that was the desire of women.  In Haggai 2, the Lord Jesus is described in similar way as the desired of the nations.

 

 

 

Posted by: thaishin | August 11, 2017

Why is external wear part of a woman’s christian walk?

Question from moody radio listener on Aug 5, 2017:

Really happy to ask you this question because it’s your Jewish heritage from your perspective. My question is about head covering in Chapter 11 of 1 Corinthians and really what my question is was this something that was in Judaism or was it something that was new or was it a practice that was neglected but more importantly what really troubles me is why would Paul call for an external practice such as something you wear to be part of a woman’s Christian walk?

Answer from Dr Michael Rydelnik:

Good. That’s a really good question. 1 Corinthians 11 really begins with the structure of authority, the authority listed this way: I want you to know that Christ is the head or ruler of every man and the man is the ruler (this not talking about every man being a ruler of woman but it’s talking about male leadership in the local congregation), the head or the male is the ruler of the woman, so there is male leadership (just like what 1 Timothy 2 is talking about) and then it says God is the ruler of Christ.  They are fully equal in essence just like man and woman are fully equal but God the Father has functional authority over Christ. In essence, who they are, fully equal, co-members of the God head but the Lord Jesus says I’ve come not to do my will but the will of the one who sent me, always submissive to the Father’s will, that’s in John 6. What this is saying is God the Father is the authority, the functional authority over Christ, just as man in the local congregation is the functional authority over the woman in the congregation, just as Christ is the authority, the functional authority over man. That I believe, because of that essence over there, that doesn’t change in this passage. But one of the things in that culture and in that day, the way a woman show respect for authority, on God’s authority on her life, one of the ways that she dress modestly in worship is by wearing a head covering, a veil. Now, that’s true for Jewish people but also true in the gentile world of Corinth that woman respect and honor by wearing a head covering, to show their modesty. Now, today, people say what do we do with this? The system remains intact. The functional authority of God the Father over God the Son, of God the Son over the man and the man over the woman, the function and leadership of the congregation, that remains the same. How woman expresses her submission to that authority is still with modest dress, of course today, being veiled,  wouldn’t express that. So what we have to do today is to find other ways that woman can dress modestly, fashionably if they like, but modestly, so that they are respectful of the authority structure in the congregation.  It’s one of the reasons why I don’t believe woman don’t have to wear veils today because that wouldn’t reflect that modesty and that respect that’s required but woman do need to dress modestly to reflect that respect. So, today there are other ways that woman can find to dress modestly without wearing a head covering.

Posted by: thaishin | May 6, 2017

Is there anything lacking in Christ afflictions?

Passage to be considered:

Colossians 1

24 Who now rejoice in my sufferings for you, and fill up that which is behind of the afflictions of Christ in my flesh for his body’s sake, which is the church:  -kjv

24 Now I rejoice in what I am suffering for you, and I fill up in my flesh what is still lacking in regard to Christ’s afflictions, for the sake of his body, which is the church.  -niv

24 Now I rejoice in my sufferings for you, and I am completing in my flesh what is lacking in Christ’s afflictions for His body, that is, the church.  -hcsb

Question from moody radio listener on April 8, 2017:

There’s a verse colossians 1:24 and I have an amplified bible and it says:

24 [Even] now I rejoice in the midst of my sufferings on your behalf. And in my own person I am making up whatever is still lacking and remains to be completed [on our part] of Christ’s afflictions, for the sake of His body, which is the church.

Can you shed some light on that? I mean I feel that Jesus did it all, you know and what is Paul talking about?

Answer from Dr Michael Rydelnik:

The word that is used here for affliction is never used in the new testament of the Messiah’s death. Never. It means distress, it means pressure or trouble and it refers to trials in life. I don’t believe the atoning sacrifice of Jesus and his passion has to be supplemented by anything but rather I think it has more to do with … do you remember when the Lord Jesus meets Paul on the road and he said why do you persecute me? Paul was not persecuting Jesus, he was persecuting His body but yet it was taken personally because we have this organic bond as from the body to the head and so as we suffers, he suffers, it’s not his suffering on our behalf was not complete, that’s a different word but it completes the man of suffering so to speak as described in Isaiah 53, acquainted with grief, it is part of his identification with humanity and as we suffer, we identify with him in doing that and that’s what we are talking about. It’s not talking about we somehow supplement the substitionary suffering and the passion of the Lord Jesus on our behalf. It’s a different idea, it’s more of the affliction of life, in this world we will have tribulation and we have the organic bond with him and we are connected as a body to the head, therefore he suffers with us.

 

 

Posted by: thaishin | April 16, 2017

Happy Resurrection Sunday!

Christ is risen!

Posted by: thaishin | April 14, 2017

Where did baptism come from?

Question from moody radio listener on openline on April 8, 2015:

I want to know where baptism came from? It’s not mentioned in the old testament as far as I know and then new testament starts with John the Baptist baptizing.  So where did baptism come from?

Answer from Dr Michael Rydelnik:

It’s really simple. If you go to Leviticus, you see all these washings, like the priestly washings and purity washings, that’s the source of baptism. By the time you come to the intertestamental period,  the rabbis have established all kinds of ritual baths that people participated in and there are a variety of reasons, there are some for converts to Judaism, the ritual purity for women after their monthly cycle, men with all sorts of symbol cleansing from sin, there are all kinds like the high priest would undergo ritual washing to enter into his office, all sorts of ritual washings that are rooted in the book of Leviticus, Numbers and all sorts of places like that. That’s where it comes from and so when John the Baptist shows up and he’s baptizing, no one says hmm what’s he doing? It fully fits the culture of the day. They understood exactly where it is coming from. It develops from the pentateuch, goes into intertestamental period with all the  rabbinic washings and then we get new testamental washings that are just part of the culture on that day and time and then John the Baptist and then the Lord Jesus gives it its own special believing significance. Hope that helps.

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